To Florus 4.24

It is therefore established that blessed John gave you no occasion for error, and that you have swallowed what Manichaeus put forward. Now that we have defended the apostle’s reputation, let us briefly come to grips with this point. What do you think Saint John means here when he declares that the desire of the flesh and the desire of the eyes are not from God? Does he mean the very kind of desire that falls into vice not through its permitted moderation but through its forbidden excess? Or does he mean only the excess, which is found to be voluntary, not natural (compare 1 John 2:16)?