Applied to Adam: if the objects God arranged necessitated his eating, where is his guilt, and how is God not author?
This is especially so if we suppose that a necessity of eating the forbidden fruit was laid on the first man through objects offered to him according to God's decree, with divine providence arranging and managing it. Suppose too that Adam could not refrain from it, given both the strength he had received from God and the incitements by which he was led to it.
Then I do not see what fault there was in him that deserved punishment, or how God is not the author of his sin. That unlawful eating would have followed necessarily from the match between the strength God had granted him and the temptations and various objects set before him, not by any fault of his but because God so ordained and arranged it.
Latin
XL. Praesertim si concipiamus primo homini fuisse necessitatem impositam edendi de fructu vetito, per objecta quae, juxta Dei decretum, & divina providentia procurante & administrante, ipsi oblata fuerunt; nec Adamum potuisse ab eo abstinere, habita ratione, tum virium quas a Deo acceperat, tum incitamentorum quibus ad hoc fuit inductus, non video quae in eo fuerit culpa supplicio digna, & quomodo Deus non sit peccati ejus autor, cum esus iste illicitus necessario secutus sit ex proportione virium quas Deus ipsi indulserat, cum tentationibus & objectis variis, quae, nulla ejus culpa, sed Deo sic ordinante ac disponente, ipsi proposita sunt.